Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 20:23 Page 3 of 59 Attempt #899 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 11 / 295 Not answered Question 55: At a primary-care follow-up visit: A groin lump above and medial to the pubic tubercle with cough impulse is most likely what? A. Femoral hernia B. Hydrocele C. Varicocele D. Lipoma always E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Surgery] An inguinal hernia is classically above and medial to the pubic tubercle; femoral is below and lateral. Reference: European Hernia Society Groin Hernia Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 12 / 295 Not answered Question 54: At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 65-year-old has painless jaundice, weight loss, and palpable gallbladder. What malignancy is concerning? A. Appendiceal abscess B. Benign hemorrhoids C. Achalasia D. Pancreatic head cancer E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Surgery] Painless obstructive jaundice with weight loss suggests pancreaticobiliary malignancy. Reference: NCCN Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 13 / 295 Not answered Question 53: At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient has severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, and free air under diaphragm. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Constipation only C. Perforated viscus D. Gastroenteritis only E. Renal colic always Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Surgery] Peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum suggests perforated hollow viscus requiring urgent surgical management. Reference: WSES Guidelines for Perforated Peptic Ulcer. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 14 / 295 Not answered Question 44: In an Arab Board-style clinic station: A 65-year-old has painless jaundice, weight loss, and palpable gallbladder. What malignancy is concerning? A. Appendiceal abscess B. Benign hemorrhoids C. Achalasia D. Pancreatic head cancer E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Surgery] Painless obstructive jaundice with weight loss suggests pancreaticobiliary malignancy. Reference: NCCN Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 15 / 295 Not answered Question 45: In an Arab Board-style clinic station: A groin lump above and medial to the pubic tubercle with cough impulse is most likely what? A. Femoral hernia B. Hydrocele C. Varicocele D. Lipoma always E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Surgery] An inguinal hernia is classically above and medial to the pubic tubercle; femoral is below and lateral. Reference: European Hernia Society Groin Hernia Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 3 of 59 Next → »