Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 02:38 Page 30 of 59 Attempt #3047 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 146 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 63-year-old man presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Postoperative surgical site infection B. Perforated peptic ulcer C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Acute appendicitis E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 147 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 81-year-old woman has wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Timely operative consultation C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Postoperative complication surveillance E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Postoperative complication surveillance is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 148 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 39-year-old woman presents with sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Acute appendicitis D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Perforated peptic ulcer Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Acute appendicitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 149 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 31-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Timely operative consultation C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Source control with appropriate antibiotics Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 150 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 37-year-old man presents with right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute mesenteric ischemia B. Acute appendicitis C. Postoperative surgical site infection D. Perforated peptic ulcer E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 30 of 59 Next → »