Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 01:42 Page 32 of 59 Attempt #3034 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 156 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 24-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen B. Abdominal ultrasound C. Lactate and perfusion assessment D. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers E. Intraoperative culture when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 157 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 28-year-old woman has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Timely operative consultation D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 158 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 48-year-old man has wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Timely operative consultation E. Postoperative complication surveillance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 159 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 69-year-old woman presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes gallstones. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Small bowel obstruction C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Acute calculous cholecystitis E. Perforated peptic ulcer Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as gallstones is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 160 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 45-year-old woman presents with sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Acute mesenteric ischemia C. Postoperative surgical site infection D. Acute calculous cholecystitis E. Small bowel obstruction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 32 of 59 Next → »