Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 00:33 Page 33 of 59 Attempt #3013 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 161 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 59-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Small bowel obstruction B. Acute calculous cholecystitis C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Postoperative surgical site infection E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Acute appendicitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 162 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 31-year-old woman has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Timely operative consultation C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 163 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 64-year-old woman is evaluated for pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Erect chest imaging for free air C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Lactate and perfusion assessment E. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 164 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 73-year-old man is evaluated for abdominal distension with vomiting in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Erect chest imaging for free air B. Lactate and perfusion assessment C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lactate and perfusion assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 165 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 31-year-old woman presents with right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 33 of 59 Next → »