Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 22:55 Page 34 of 59 Attempt #2976 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 166 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 39-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Acute appendicitis D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute mesenteric ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Acute mesenteric ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 167 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 65-year-old woman has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis management in surgical infection B. Timely operative consultation C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Postoperative complication surveillance E. Source control with appropriate antibiotics Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Postoperative complication surveillance is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 168 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 50-year-old woman presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Small bowel obstruction D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Acute mesenteric ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 169 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 65-year-old man is evaluated for sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Intraoperative culture when indicated C. Lactate and perfusion assessment D. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 170 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 66-year-old man has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. Timely operative consultation D. Early sepsis management in surgical infection E. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 34 of 59 Next → »