Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 20:40 Page 35 of 59 Attempt #2951 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 171 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 70-year-old woman is evaluated for abdominal distension with vomiting in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Erect chest imaging for free air C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 172 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 72-year-old man presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Small bowel obstruction B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Postoperative surgical site infection. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 173 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 62-year-old woman has right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Postoperative complication surveillance B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. Timely operative consultation D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Source control with appropriate antibiotics Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 174 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 38-year-old man presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Acute calculous cholecystitis C. Small bowel obstruction D. Acute appendicitis E. Acute mesenteric ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 175 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 53-year-old man has right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 35 of 59 Next → »