Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:15 Page 36 of 59 Attempt #2900 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 176 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 49-year-old woman presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes gallstones. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Acute calculous cholecystitis C. Postoperative surgical site infection D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute mesenteric ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as gallstones is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 177 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 38-year-old woman is evaluated for right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area in the context of vascular disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen B. Intraoperative culture when indicated C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Intraoperative culture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 178 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 75-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of NSAID use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Erect chest imaging for free air B. Intraoperative culture when indicated C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Lactate and perfusion assessment E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 179 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 63-year-old man is evaluated for abdominal distension with vomiting in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Erect chest imaging for free air C. Lactate and perfusion assessment D. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lactate and perfusion assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 180 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 47-year-old man has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Timely operative consultation C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Early sepsis management in surgical infection E. Postoperative complication surveillance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Resuscitation and electrolyte correction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 36 of 59 Next → »