Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 15:18 Page 37 of 59 Attempt #2867 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 181 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 32-year-old woman is evaluated for right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Erect chest imaging for free air B. Abdominal ultrasound C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers E. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 182 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 77-year-old woman presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute mesenteric ischemia B. Acute appendicitis C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Postoperative surgical site infection E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Postoperative surgical site infection. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 183 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 62-year-old man has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Early sepsis management in surgical infection C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. Source control with appropriate antibiotics E. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 184 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 75-year-old man has wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely operative consultation B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Postoperative complication surveillance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Postoperative complication surveillance is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 185 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 43-year-old man presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Perforated peptic ulcer C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 37 of 59 Next → »