Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 14:18 Page 38 of 59 Attempt #2817 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 186 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 76-year-old woman has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis management in surgical infection B. Source control with appropriate antibiotics C. Timely operative consultation D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. Postoperative complication surveillance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Resuscitation and electrolyte correction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 187 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 67-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Postoperative complication surveillance B. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization C. Timely operative consultation D. Early sepsis management in surgical infection E. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 188 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 76-year-old man has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Postoperative complication surveillance B. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Timely operative consultation E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 189 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 54-year-old woman presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Acute appendicitis C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute mesenteric ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 190 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 81-year-old man presents with sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Acute calculous cholecystitis E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Postoperative surgical site infection. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 38 of 59 Next → »