Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:37 Page 39 of 59 Attempt #2783 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 191 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 68-year-old woman has wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk profile of NSAID use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization B. Early sepsis management in surgical infection C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. Timely operative consultation E. Source control with appropriate antibiotics Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 192 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 82-year-old woman presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes gallstones. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Small bowel obstruction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as gallstones is most consistent with Postoperative surgical site infection. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 193 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 78-year-old woman is evaluated for right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area in the context of vascular disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Intraoperative culture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 194 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 74-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of NSAID use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization B. Timely operative consultation C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Postoperative complication surveillance E. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 195 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 47-year-old woman is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Erect chest imaging for free air B. Lactate and perfusion assessment C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 39 of 59 Next → »