Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 12:43 Page 40 of 59 Attempt #2726 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 196 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 76-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Postoperative complication surveillance B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. Timely operative consultation D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 197 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 59-year-old man has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely operative consultation B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 198 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 34-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of prior abdominal surgery. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers B. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Lactate and perfusion assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Lactate and perfusion assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 199 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 25-year-old man is evaluated for wound erythema with purulent drainage in the context of prior abdominal surgery. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Erect chest imaging for free air C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Lactate and perfusion assessment E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Lactate and perfusion assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 200 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 56-year-old man is evaluated for pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion assessment B. Abdominal ultrasound C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 40 of 59 Next → »