Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:53 Page 41 of 59 Attempt #2681 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 201 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 63-year-old woman is evaluated for abdominal distension with vomiting in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen B. Lactate and perfusion assessment C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Abdominal ultrasound E. Erect chest imaging for free air Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Intraoperative culture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 202 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 66-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of NSAID use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Abdominal ultrasound C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Lactate and perfusion assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 203 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 49-year-old woman has right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Postoperative complication surveillance E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 204 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 29-year-old woman has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization B. Source control with appropriate antibiotics C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. Timely operative consultation E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 205 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 77-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Source control with appropriate antibiotics E. Timely operative consultation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 41 of 59 Next → »