Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:01 Page 42 of 59 Attempt #2649 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 206 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 40-year-old woman is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of vascular disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Lactate and perfusion assessment C. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Intraoperative culture when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 207 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 69-year-old woman presents with sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Acute calculous cholecystitis C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Small bowel obstruction E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 208 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 78-year-old man has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Timely operative consultation C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 209 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 57-year-old man presents with abdominal distension with vomiting. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute mesenteric ischemia B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of abdominal distension with vomiting with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 210 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 28-year-old woman has right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Postoperative complication surveillance B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Source control with appropriate antibiotics E. Timely operative consultation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 42 of 59 Next → »