Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:09 Page 43 of 59 Attempt #2572 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 211 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 30-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Postoperative surgical site infection B. Perforated peptic ulcer C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Perforated peptic ulcer. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 212 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 58-year-old man has wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis management in surgical infection B. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Postoperative complication surveillance E. Timely operative consultation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 213 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 36-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion assessment B. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers C. Erect chest imaging for free air D. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 214 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 61-year-old man has wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization B. Early sepsis management in surgical infection C. Timely operative consultation D. Source control with appropriate antibiotics E. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 215 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 45-year-old woman presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Small bowel obstruction C. Acute appendicitis D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 43 of 59 Next → »