Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:04 Page 44 of 59 Attempt #2441 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 216 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 44-year-old woman is evaluated for pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen B. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers C. Erect chest imaging for free air D. Abdominal ultrasound E. Lactate and perfusion assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 217 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 63-year-old woman has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely operative consultation B. Source control with appropriate antibiotics C. Early sepsis management in surgical infection D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Postoperative complication surveillance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 218 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 46-year-old man presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Small bowel obstruction C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Acute mesenteric ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 219 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 56-year-old man presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute mesenteric ischemia B. Small bowel obstruction C. Acute appendicitis D. Acute calculous cholecystitis E. Perforated peptic ulcer Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Acute mesenteric ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 220 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 31-year-old man presents with right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Small bowel obstruction C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Postoperative surgical site infection E. Acute mesenteric ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Postoperative surgical site infection. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 44 of 59 Next → »