Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 05:14 Page 48 of 59 Attempt #2034 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 236 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 80-year-old woman has right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Timely operative consultation E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Postoperative complication surveillance is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 237 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 32-year-old man is evaluated for pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Erect chest imaging for free air B. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Abdominal ultrasound E. Lactate and perfusion assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 238 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 81-year-old man presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Acute appendicitis C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Small bowel obstruction E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 239 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 61-year-old woman is evaluated for abdominal distension with vomiting in the context of immunosuppression. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers C. Lactate and perfusion assessment D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lactate and perfusion assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 240 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 80-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely operative consultation B. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. Postoperative complication surveillance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 48 of 59 Next → »