Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 03:26 Page 50 of 59 Attempt #1820 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 246 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 82-year-old woman has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of NSAID use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely operative consultation B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization E. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 247 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 26-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of vascular disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Lactate and perfusion assessment C. Erect chest imaging for free air D. Intraoperative culture when indicated E. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Erect chest imaging for free air is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 248 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 45-year-old woman has right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk profile of immunosuppression. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. Timely operative consultation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Resuscitation and electrolyte correction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 249 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 57-year-old man is evaluated for abdominal distension with vomiting in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Erect chest imaging for free air C. Lactate and perfusion assessment D. Intraoperative culture when indicated E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Erect chest imaging for free air is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 250 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 29-year-old man presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes gallstones. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as gallstones is most consistent with Postoperative surgical site infection. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 50 of 59 Next → »