Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 21:56 Page 56 of 59 Attempt #1139 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 276 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 42-year-old man has sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization C. Postoperative complication surveillance D. Timely operative consultation E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 277 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 32-year-old woman presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Perforated peptic ulcer C. Acute appendicitis D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Acute mesenteric ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 278 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 48-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of NSAID use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Erect chest imaging for free air B. Intraoperative culture when indicated C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Erect chest imaging for free air is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 279 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 78-year-old man has right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely operative consultation B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Postoperative complication surveillance is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 280 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 30-year-old man is evaluated for wound erythema with purulent drainage in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Erect chest imaging for free air B. Intraoperative culture when indicated C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Lactate and perfusion assessment E. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Erect chest imaging for free air is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 56 of 59 Next → »