Cardiology Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 01:46 Page 30 of 62 Attempt #3039 Overall: 0 / 306 questions answered Question 146 / 306 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 64-year-old woman has exertional syncope with systolic murmur with risk profile of chronic hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Secondary prevention with statin and antiplatelet therapy B. Rate or rhythm control with anticoagulation assessment C. Targeted blood pressure reduction with monitoring D. Early reperfusion strategy E. Guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Targeted blood pressure reduction with monitoring is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Cardiology. Reference: AHA/ACC Heart Failure Guideline (2022 update) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 147 / 306 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 37-year-old man presents with exertional syncope with systolic murmur. Relevant risk context includes chronic hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Severe aortic stenosis C. ST-elevation myocardial infarction D. Acute decompensated heart failure E. Atrial fibrillation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of exertional syncope with systolic murmur with risk factors such as chronic hypertension is most consistent with ST-elevation myocardial infarction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Cardiology. Reference: AHA/ACC Heart Failure Guideline (2022 update) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 148 / 306 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 78-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea with bibasal crackles. Relevant risk context includes prior myocardial infarction. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute decompensated heart failure B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Severe aortic stenosis D. ST-elevation myocardial infarction E. Atrial fibrillation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of progressive dyspnea with bibasal crackles with risk factors such as prior myocardial infarction is most consistent with Dilated cardiomyopathy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Cardiology. Reference: ESC Atrial Fibrillation Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 149 / 306 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 74-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea with bibasal crackles. Relevant risk context includes prior myocardial infarction. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Atrial fibrillation B. ST-elevation myocardial infarction C. Acute decompensated heart failure D. Hypertensive emergency E. Severe aortic stenosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of progressive dyspnea with bibasal crackles with risk factors such as prior myocardial infarction is most consistent with Atrial fibrillation. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Cardiology. Reference: ESC Atrial Fibrillation Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 150 / 306 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 61-year-old woman presents with elevated JVP with peripheral edema. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute decompensated heart failure B. ST-elevation myocardial infarction C. Dilated cardiomyopathy D. Severe aortic stenosis E. Atrial fibrillation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of elevated JVP with peripheral edema with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Acute decompensated heart failure. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Cardiology. Reference: ESC Guidelines for Acute Coronary Syndromes (2023) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 30 of 62 Next → »