Urology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 02:34 Page 10 of 53 Attempt #1710 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 46 / 263 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A young man has sudden severe testicular pain, high-riding testis, and absent cremasteric reflex. What is the management? A. Oral antibiotics and review in 1 month B. Scrotal support only C. Urgent surgical exploration for torsion D. CT abdomen first E. Reassurance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Urology] Suspected testicular torsion is a surgical emergency; exploration should not be delayed by imaging if suspicion is high. Reference: EAU Paediatric Urology/Urological Emergencies Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 47 / 263 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 35-year-old has flank colic and CT shows 4-mm distal ureteric stone without infection or renal failure. What is reasonable? A. Immediate nephrectomy B. No analgesia C. Antibiotics always D. Analgesia, hydration advice, and trial of passage with follow-up E. Chemotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Urology] Small uncomplicated distal ureteric stones often pass with conservative management and follow-up; urgent drainage is needed if infected obstruction. Reference: EAU Urolithiasis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 48 / 263 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A man with erectile dysfunction uses nitrates for angina. Which ED drug class is contraindicated? A. Vacuum device B. Lifestyle modification C. Psychosexual counseling D. Diabetes control E. PDE5 inhibitors Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Urology] PDE5 inhibitors are contraindicated with nitrates because of severe hypotension risk. Reference: AUA Erectile Dysfunction Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 49 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A man has painless visible hematuria. What is the key next step? A. Reassure as normal aging B. Urgent urologic evaluation including cystoscopy and upper-tract imaging C. Treat as UTI without testing forever D. PSA only E. No follow-up if no pain Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Urology] Visible painless hematuria warrants evaluation for urinary tract malignancy. Reference: NICE Suspected Cancer Guidance; AUA Microhematuria Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 50 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A 68-year-old man has LUTS from BPH without red flags. Which medication improves dynamic obstruction? A. Alpha-1 blocker such as tamsulosin B. Loop diuretic at night C. Antibiotic for all cases D. Chemotherapy E. Levothyroxine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Urology] Alpha-1 blockers relax prostate/bladder neck smooth muscle and improve LUTS quickly. Reference: AUA Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 10 of 53 Next → »