Urology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:09 Page 18 of 53 Attempt #2574 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 86 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 64-year-old woman presents with sudden unilateral scrotal pain. Relevant risk context includes BPH history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Testicular torsion B. Ureteric colic C. Obstructive infected system D. Acute bacterial prostatitis E. Benign prostatic hyperplasia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of sudden unilateral scrotal pain with risk factors such as BPH history is most consistent with Benign prostatic hyperplasia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Urology. Reference: BAUS Recommendations; Urology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 87 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 70-year-old man has painless gross hematuria with risk profile of recent urinary instrumentation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Risk-stratified hematuria workup B. Emergent scrotal exploration for torsion suspicion C. Analgesia with medical expulsive strategy when appropriate D. Targeted antimicrobial treatment E. Urgent decompression for obstructed infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Emergent scrotal exploration for torsion suspicion is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Urology. Reference: AUA Clinical Guidelines; Urology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 88 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 41-year-old man is evaluated for fever with pelvic discomfort in the context of recent urinary instrumentation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Cystoscopy pathway B. Scrotal Doppler ultrasound C. Non-contrast CT KUB D. Renal function and sepsis markers E. Post-void residual assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Non-contrast CT KUB is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Urology. Reference: NICE LUTS Guidance; Urology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 89 / 263 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 82-year-old man presents with weak stream with nocturia. Relevant risk context includes dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Obstructive infected system B. Testicular torsion C. Bladder malignancy suspicion D. Ureteric colic E. Acute bacterial prostatitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of weak stream with nocturia with risk factors such as dehydration is most consistent with Bladder malignancy suspicion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Urology. Reference: EAU Guidelines; Urology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 90 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 24-year-old man has weak stream with nocturia with risk profile of urolithiasis history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Analgesia with medical expulsive strategy when appropriate B. Urgent decompression for obstructed infection C. Risk-stratified hematuria workup D. Targeted antimicrobial treatment E. Emergent scrotal exploration for torsion suspicion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Urgent decompression for obstructed infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Urology. Reference: BAUS Recommendations; Urology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 18 of 53 Next → »