Anesthesia Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 07:09 Page 15 of 55 Attempt #2255 Overall: 0 / 275 questions answered Question 71 / 275 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 75-year-old man presents with hypotension after neuraxial block. Relevant risk context includes OSA. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Malignant hyperthermia B. Spinal anesthesia hypotension C. Perioperative aspiration risk D. Anaphylaxis during induction E. Predicted difficult airway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of hypotension after neuraxial block with risk factors such as OSA is most consistent with Malignant hyperthermia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Anesthesia. Reference: DAS Airway Guidelines; Anesthesia topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 72 / 275 Not answered A patient develops muscle rigidity and fever during surgery. What is the most immediate intervention? A. Continue operation as planned B. Administer dantrolene sodium C. Give additional anesthesia D. Apply cooling blankets E. Proceed with operation slowly Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Dantrolene sodium must be given immediately to inhibit calcium release and treat malignant hyperthermia. Reference: American Society of Anesthesiologists Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 73 / 275 Not answered A 60-year-old postoperative patient has uncontrolled pain. Most appropriate approach: A. Withhold opioids to prevent addiction B. Multimodal analgesia including opioids NSAIDs and regional blocks C. Observation only D. Local anesthetics alone E. Reassurance and encouragement Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Multimodal analgesia provides superior pain control with lower opioid requirements and better outcomes. Reference: American Society of Anesthesiologists Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 74 / 275 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 25-year-old man has bronchospasm and hypotension after induction with risk profile of OSA. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Titrated naloxone with ventilatory support B. Anaphylaxis emergency management C. Difficult airway algorithm preparation D. Multimodal postoperative analgesia E. Targeted fluid and vasopressor support Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Titrated naloxone with ventilatory support is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Anesthesia. Reference: ASA Practice Guidelines; Anesthesia topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 75 / 275 Not answered A patient requires knee surgery. Most appropriate regional anesthetic approach: A. General anesthesia only B. Spinal anesthesia C. Femoral nerve block D. Epidural anesthesia E. No anesthesia needed Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Femoral nerve block is effective for knee surgery and reduces postoperative pain compared to general anesthesia alone. Reference: American Society of Anesthesiologists Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 15 of 55 Next → »