Anesthesia Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 20:39 Page 26 of 55 Attempt #2948 Overall: 0 / 275 questions answered Question 126 / 275 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 80-year-old woman presents with hypotension after neuraxial block. Relevant risk context includes major surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perioperative aspiration risk B. Malignant hyperthermia C. Opioid-induced respiratory depression D. Predicted difficult airway E. Spinal anesthesia hypotension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of hypotension after neuraxial block with risk factors such as major surgery is most consistent with Predicted difficult airway. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Anesthesia. Reference: ASA Practice Guidelines; Anesthesia topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 127 / 275 Not answered During morning rounds: a 58-year-old man is evaluated for somnolence with hypoventilation post-op in the context of OSA. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Capnography and gas exchange monitoring B. ABG when ventilatory compromise is suspected C. Postoperative pain assessment D. Perioperative hemodynamic monitoring E. Medication and allergy reconciliation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Capnography and gas exchange monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Anesthesia. Reference: ESAIC Perioperative Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 128 / 275 Not answered During ward handover: a 64-year-old man presents with limited mouth opening with reduced neck extension. Relevant risk context includes OSA. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Predicted difficult airway B. Anaphylaxis during induction C. Perioperative aspiration risk D. Malignant hyperthermia E. Opioid-induced respiratory depression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of limited mouth opening with reduced neck extension with risk factors such as OSA is most consistent with Predicted difficult airway. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Anesthesia. Reference: ASA Practice Guidelines; Anesthesia topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 129 / 275 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 64-year-old woman is evaluated for regurgitation risk in urgent surgery in the context of polypharmacy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Capnography and gas exchange monitoring B. Perioperative hemodynamic monitoring C. ABG when ventilatory compromise is suspected D. Postoperative pain assessment E. Structured airway assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Capnography and gas exchange monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Anesthesia. Reference: ASA Practice Guidelines; Anesthesia topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 130 / 275 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 82-year-old woman presents with somnolence with hypoventilation post-op. Relevant risk context includes obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Spinal anesthesia hypotension B. Predicted difficult airway C. Perioperative aspiration risk D. Malignant hyperthermia E. Opioid-induced respiratory depression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of somnolence with hypoventilation post-op with risk factors such as obesity is most consistent with Spinal anesthesia hypotension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Anesthesia. Reference: ASA Practice Guidelines; Anesthesia topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 26 of 55 Next → »