Gynecology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 07:10 Page 15 of 29 Attempt #2259 Overall: 0 / 143 questions answered Question 71 / 143 Not answered Question 140: At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient with severe asthma exacerbation has silent chest and exhaustion. What is the implication? (Variant 1620) A. Mild asthma suitable for discharge B. Normal finding after salbutamol C. Pneumonia excluded D. No oxygen required E. Life-threatening asthma requiring urgent escalation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Silent chest and exhaustion are life-threatening asthma signs needing urgent escalation. Reference: GINA Strategy Report. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 72 / 143 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A woman at 28 weeks has 75-g OGTT fasting 5.4 mmol/L and 2-hour 9.0 mmol/L. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Type 1 diabetes always B. Normal pregnancy glucose C. Hypoglycemia D. Gestational diabetes mellitus E. Pheochromocytoma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] OGTT values above diagnostic thresholds at 24-28 weeks support gestational diabetes. Reference: IADPSG/WHO Criteria; ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 73 / 143 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 30-year-old has infertility, irregular cycles, hirsutism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after excluding mimics. What is the diagnosis? A. Premature ovarian insufficiency always B. Polycystic ovary syndrome C. Asherman syndrome D. Endometrial cancer proven E. Normal variant only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] PCOS is diagnosed using oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after excluding related disorders. Reference: International Evidence-based PCOS Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 74 / 143 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A postpartum woman has heavy bleeding, boggy enlarged uterus, and tachycardia. What is first-line immediate management? A. Wait for spontaneous resolution B. Oral iron only C. Uterine massage and uterotonic such as oxytocin D. Magnesium sulfate as uterotonic E. Methotrexate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Uterine atony is the commonest cause of postpartum hemorrhage; massage and oxytocin are first-line. Reference: WHO Recommendations for Prevention and Treatment of Postpartum Haemorrhage. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 75 / 143 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A 30-year-old has infertility, irregular cycles, hirsutism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after excluding mimics. What is the diagnosis? A. Premature ovarian insufficiency always B. Asherman syndrome C. Endometrial cancer proven D. Polycystic ovary syndrome E. Normal variant only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] PCOS is diagnosed using oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after excluding related disorders. Reference: International Evidence-based PCOS Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 15 of 29 Next → »