Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 06:20 Page 33 of 112 Attempt #3097 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 161 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 81-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. Colorectal cancer screening test C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. HbA1c with fasting glucose E. PHQ-9 assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 162 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 70-year-old woman is evaluated for dysuria with urinary frequency in the context of poor diet quality. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. PHQ-9 assessment C. TSH with free T4 D. HbA1c with fasting glucose E. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 163 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 28-year-old man has fatigue with microcytosis with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 164 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 46-year-old woman has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of poor diet quality. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 165 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 24-year-old woman has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 33 of 112 Next → »