Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 07:14 Page 34 of 112 Attempt #3100 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 166 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 39-year-old man presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes family history of cardiometabolic disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Acute uncomplicated cystitis E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as family history of cardiometabolic disease is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 167 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 25-year-old woman has polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk profile of limited medication adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate C. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 168 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 69-year-old man is evaluated for productive cough with focal crackles in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. Colorectal cancer screening test D. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: TSH with free T4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 169 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 62-year-old woman has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of poor diet quality. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 170 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 36-year-old woman is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of limited medication adherence. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. PHQ-9 assessment B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 34 of 112 Next → »