Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 08:12 Page 35 of 112 Attempt #3105 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 171 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 30-year-old man presents with persistently elevated office blood pressure. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis C. Major depressive disorder D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 172 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 79-year-old man is evaluated for dysuria with urinary frequency in the context of limited medication adherence. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. PHQ-9 assessment B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. Colorectal cancer screening test D. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Colorectal cancer screening test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 173 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 42-year-old woman has polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 174 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 67-year-old man has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan E. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 175 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 80-year-old man presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Community-acquired pneumonia D. Essential hypertension E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 35 of 112 Next → »