Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 09:04 Page 36 of 112 Attempt #3108 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 176 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 43-year-old woman is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. Colorectal cancer screening test C. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio D. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 177 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 55-year-old woman is evaluated for anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance in the context of current tobacco use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation B. TSH with free T4 C. PHQ-9 assessment D. Colorectal cancer screening test E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: HbA1c with fasting glucose is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 178 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 70-year-old man is evaluated for dysuria with urinary frequency in the context of current tobacco use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation B. Colorectal cancer screening test C. TSH with free T4 D. PHQ-9 assessment E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Colorectal cancer screening test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 179 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 55-year-old woman presents with productive cough with focal crackles. Relevant risk context includes family history of cardiometabolic disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis C. Major depressive disorder D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Essential hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of productive cough with focal crackles with risk factors such as family history of cardiometabolic disease is most consistent with Iron deficiency anemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 180 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 51-year-old woman has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of poor diet quality. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 36 of 112 Next → »