Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 09:43 Page 37 of 112 Attempt #3111 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 181 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 71-year-old woman presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis D. Community-acquired pneumonia E. Type 2 diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Acute uncomplicated cystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 182 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 81-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. TSH with free T4 D. PHQ-9 assessment E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 183 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 69-year-old woman is evaluated for productive cough with focal crackles in the context of poor diet quality. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. PHQ-9 assessment D. TSH with free T4 E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 184 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 65-year-old woman has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 185 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 35-year-old man is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of limited medication adherence. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. TSH with free T4 D. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 37 of 112 Next → »