Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 10:23 Page 38 of 112 Attempt #3114 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 186 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 55-year-old woman is evaluated for dysuria with urinary frequency in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. TSH with free T4 C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. HbA1c with fasting glucose E. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: HbA1c with fasting glucose is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 187 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 81-year-old man presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes recent psychosocial stressors. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Major depressive disorder D. Essential hypertension E. Type 2 diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as recent psychosocial stressors is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 188 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 63-year-old man is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. PHQ-9 assessment B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. TSH with free T4 D. HbA1c with fasting glucose E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: TSH with free T4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 189 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 51-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of limited medication adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 190 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 43-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 38 of 112 Next → »