Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 10:55 Page 39 of 112 Attempt #3118 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 191 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 69-year-old man presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes recent psychosocial stressors. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Major depressive disorder C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Acute uncomplicated cystitis E. Type 2 diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as recent psychosocial stressors is most consistent with Acute uncomplicated cystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 192 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 41-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 193 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 38-year-old man is evaluated for productive cough with focal crackles in the context of poor diet quality. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. PHQ-9 assessment E. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 194 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 82-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of family history of cardiometabolic disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 195 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 61-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 39 of 112 Next → »