Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 11:41 Page 40 of 112 Attempt #3122 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 196 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 65-year-old man presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Major depressive disorder D. Acute uncomplicated cystitis E. Community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 197 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 63-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of limited medication adherence. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. Colorectal cancer screening test D. PHQ-9 assessment E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 198 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 35-year-old woman has polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 199 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 65-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of family history of cardiometabolic disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up D. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 200 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 82-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. PHQ-9 assessment E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: TSH with free T4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 40 of 112 Next → »