Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 12:35 Page 41 of 112 Attempt #3125 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 201 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 57-year-old woman has dysuria with urinary frequency with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 202 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 82-year-old man presents with anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance. Relevant risk context includes poor diet quality. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Major depressive disorder D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk factors such as poor diet quality is most consistent with Acute uncomplicated cystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 203 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 56-year-old man is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of poor diet quality. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. PHQ-9 assessment D. Colorectal cancer screening test E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 204 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 49-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. PHQ-9 assessment D. Colorectal cancer screening test E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 205 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 54-year-old woman presents with anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance. Relevant risk context includes poor diet quality. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis C. Major depressive disorder D. Community-acquired pneumonia E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk factors such as poor diet quality is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 41 of 112 Next → »