Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 14:48 Page 44 of 112 Attempt #3131 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 216 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 81-year-old woman presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis C. Community-acquired pneumonia D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 217 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 31-year-old woman presents with anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute uncomplicated cystitis B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Major depressive disorder D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Essential hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Essential hypertension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 218 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 47-year-old woman has dysuria with urinary frequency with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 219 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 33-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated B. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 220 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 49-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 44 of 112 Next → »