Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 15:39 Page 45 of 112 Attempt #3134 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 221 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 45-year-old woman presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Essential hypertension E. Community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Iron deficiency anemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 222 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 25-year-old man is evaluated for productive cough with focal crackles in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio D. PHQ-9 assessment E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 223 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 72-year-old man is evaluated for anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. TSH with free T4 D. PHQ-9 assessment E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: HbA1c with fasting glucose is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 224 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 32-year-old man has dysuria with urinary frequency with risk profile of family history of cardiometabolic disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 225 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 59-year-old man is evaluated for anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance in the context of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. PHQ-9 assessment B. Colorectal cancer screening test C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. TSH with free T4 E. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 45 of 112 Next → »