Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 16:30 Page 46 of 112 Attempt #3136 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 226 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 65-year-old man is evaluated for dysuria with urinary frequency in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. PHQ-9 assessment B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. Colorectal cancer screening test E. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 227 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 67-year-old man has polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 228 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 31-year-old man is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of poor diet quality. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio B. TSH with free T4 C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. PHQ-9 assessment E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: HbA1c with fasting glucose is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 229 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 59-year-old man has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 230 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 74-year-old woman has fatigue with microcytosis with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 46 of 112 Next → »