Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 17:23 Page 47 of 112 Attempt #3138 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 231 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 56-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 232 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 60-year-old man is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. PHQ-9 assessment D. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: HbA1c with fasting glucose is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 233 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 43-year-old woman presents with productive cough with focal crackles. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute uncomplicated cystitis B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Major depressive disorder E. Community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of productive cough with focal crackles with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Acute uncomplicated cystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 234 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 60-year-old woman presents with dysuria with urinary frequency. Relevant risk context includes family history of cardiometabolic disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Acute uncomplicated cystitis E. Essential hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of dysuria with urinary frequency with risk factors such as family history of cardiometabolic disease is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 235 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 75-year-old woman has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of family history of cardiometabolic disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 47 of 112 Next → »