Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 18:05 Page 48 of 112 Attempt #3141 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 236 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 47-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. TSH with free T4 C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. PHQ-9 assessment E. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: HbA1c with fasting glucose is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 237 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 80-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of limited medication adherence. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. PHQ-9 assessment C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. TSH with free T4 E. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Colorectal cancer screening test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 238 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 44-year-old man presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis D. Essential hypertension E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Acute uncomplicated cystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 239 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 65-year-old woman has fatigue with microcytosis with risk profile of limited medication adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 240 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 50-year-old man is evaluated for productive cough with focal crackles in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation B. TSH with free T4 C. PHQ-9 assessment D. HbA1c with fasting glucose E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 48 of 112 Next → »