Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 19:00 Page 50 of 112 Attempt #3263 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 246 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 51-year-old woman presents with persistently elevated office blood pressure. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute uncomplicated cystitis B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Essential hypertension D. Community-acquired pneumonia E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Acute uncomplicated cystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 247 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 49-year-old man presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Community-acquired pneumonia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 248 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 57-year-old woman presents with persistently elevated office blood pressure. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis D. Major depressive disorder E. Essential hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Iron deficiency anemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 249 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 50-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of current tobacco use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. PHQ-9 assessment C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation E. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 250 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 50-year-old man presents with anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute uncomplicated cystitis B. Community-acquired pneumonia C. Essential hypertension D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 50 of 112 Next → »