Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 19:41 Page 51 of 112 Attempt #3266 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 251 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 76-year-old man has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of limited medication adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up C. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy D. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 252 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 51-year-old woman presents with persistently elevated office blood pressure. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Essential hypertension C. Major depressive disorder D. Acute uncomplicated cystitis E. Type 2 diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 253 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 47-year-old man has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of poor diet quality. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 254 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 37-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. TSH with free T4 C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. PHQ-9 assessment E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 255 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 57-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. TSH with free T4 D. PHQ-9 assessment E. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 51 of 112 Next → »