Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 20:29 Page 52 of 112 Attempt #3268 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 256 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 60-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio B. Colorectal cancer screening test C. PHQ-9 assessment D. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: TSH with free T4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 257 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 69-year-old woman is evaluated for anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance in the context of poor diet quality. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. Colorectal cancer screening test D. PHQ-9 assessment E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Colorectal cancer screening test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 258 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 36-year-old woman presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes family history of cardiometabolic disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Community-acquired pneumonia D. Essential hypertension E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as family history of cardiometabolic disease is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 259 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 68-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of limited medication adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 260 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 43-year-old woman presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Major depressive disorder C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Community-acquired pneumonia E. Essential hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Iron deficiency anemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 52 of 112 Next → »