Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 22:09 Page 54 of 112 Attempt #3273 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 266 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 56-year-old woman is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of recent psychosocial stressors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. PHQ-9 assessment C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. Colorectal cancer screening test E. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 267 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 78-year-old woman has dysuria with urinary frequency with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 268 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 47-year-old woman has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of family history of cardiometabolic disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate C. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 269 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 33-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. Colorectal cancer screening test D. PHQ-9 assessment E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 270 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 77-year-old woman presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes poor diet quality. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis D. Iron deficiency anemia E. Community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as poor diet quality is most consistent with Iron deficiency anemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 54 of 112 Next → »