Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 22:49 Page 55 of 112 Attempt #3275 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 271 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 36-year-old man has polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk profile of limited medication adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 272 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 30-year-old woman presents with dysuria with urinary frequency. Relevant risk context includes family history of cardiometabolic disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Major depressive disorder C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Iron deficiency anemia E. Community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of dysuria with urinary frequency with risk factors such as family history of cardiometabolic disease is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 273 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 39-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio B. Colorectal cancer screening test C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. TSH with free T4 E. PHQ-9 assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 274 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 63-year-old man presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Major depressive disorder C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Acute uncomplicated cystitis E. Community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Essential hypertension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 275 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 78-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of poor diet quality. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 55 of 112 Next → »