Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 23:29 Page 56 of 112 Attempt #3277 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 276 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 67-year-old woman has fatigue with microcytosis with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated E. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 277 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 50-year-old man is evaluated for dysuria with urinary frequency in the context of current tobacco use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. PHQ-9 assessment B. Colorectal cancer screening test C. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio D. HbA1c with fasting glucose E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Colorectal cancer screening test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 278 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 50-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with microcytosis in the context of poor diet quality. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. PHQ-9 assessment B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. TSH with free T4 D. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Colorectal cancer screening test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 279 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 44-year-old man presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Community-acquired pneumonia C. Major depressive disorder D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 280 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 77-year-old woman presents with persistently elevated office blood pressure. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis C. Major depressive disorder D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 56 of 112 Next → »