Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 22:45 Page 58 of 112 Attempt #3274 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 286 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 28-year-old woman has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 287 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 58-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. PHQ-9 assessment D. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio E. Colorectal cancer screening test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 288 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 82-year-old woman has fatigue with microcytosis with risk profile of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 289 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 50-year-old woman presents with productive cough with focal crackles. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Essential hypertension C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Major depressive disorder E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of productive cough with focal crackles with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Essential hypertension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 290 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 34-year-old woman presents with productive cough with focal crackles. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis D. Essential hypertension E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of productive cough with focal crackles with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Essential hypertension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 58 of 112 Next → »