Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 22:09 Page 59 of 112 Attempt #3272 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 291 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 74-year-old woman presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Essential hypertension D. Community-acquired pneumonia E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 292 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 35-year-old man has polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk profile of family history of cardiometabolic disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 293 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 37-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 294 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 32-year-old woman has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 295 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 55-year-old man has fatigue with microcytosis with risk profile of poor diet quality. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated E. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 59 of 112 Next → »