Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 21:15 Page 60 of 112 Attempt #3270 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 296 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 32-year-old man has dysuria with urinary frequency with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated B. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated E. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 297 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 42-year-old man has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 298 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 65-year-old woman presents with persistently elevated office blood pressure. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Essential hypertension E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 299 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 44-year-old woman has fatigue with microcytosis with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated B. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated C. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 300 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 56-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of family history of cardiometabolic disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated B. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 60 of 112 Next → »