Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 20:36 Page 61 of 112 Attempt #3269 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 301 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 34-year-old woman is evaluated for anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance in the context of current tobacco use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. Colorectal cancer screening test C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio E. PHQ-9 assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: TSH with free T4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 302 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 79-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of poor diet quality. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated E. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 303 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 26-year-old woman presents with anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance. Relevant risk context includes family history of cardiometabolic disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Major depressive disorder C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk factors such as family history of cardiometabolic disease is most consistent with Acute uncomplicated cystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 304 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 30-year-old man presents with anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance. Relevant risk context includes recent psychosocial stressors. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Essential hypertension E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk factors such as recent psychosocial stressors is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 305 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 58-year-old man is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. TSH with free T4 C. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio D. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation E. PHQ-9 assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 61 of 112 Next → »