Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 18:03 Page 66 of 112 Attempt #3140 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 326 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 78-year-old man presents with anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance. Relevant risk context includes family history of cardiometabolic disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Essential hypertension D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk factors such as family history of cardiometabolic disease is most consistent with Iron deficiency anemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 327 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 26-year-old woman has polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 328 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 26-year-old woman is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of obesity and sedentary lifestyle. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. PHQ-9 assessment D. Colorectal cancer screening test E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: HbA1c with fasting glucose is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 329 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 82-year-old man presents with dysuria with urinary frequency. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Community-acquired pneumonia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Major depressive disorder E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of dysuria with urinary frequency with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 330 / 560 Not answered During morning rounds: a 62-year-old woman is evaluated for dysuria with urinary frequency in the context of current tobacco use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. PHQ-9 assessment C. Colorectal cancer screening test D. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Colorectal cancer screening test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 66 of 112 Next → »