Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 17:22 Page 67 of 112 Attempt #3137 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 331 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 38-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of poor diet quality. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate C. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 332 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 49-year-old man presents with persistently elevated office blood pressure. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Essential hypertension B. Community-acquired pneumonia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Major depressive disorder E. Type 2 diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 333 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 62-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. TSH with free T4 E. PHQ-9 assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 334 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 27-year-old woman presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Essential hypertension C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Acute uncomplicated cystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 335 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 24-year-old man has productive cough with focal crackles with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate B. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy E. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 67 of 112 Next → »